1. What are the characteristics of software?
a. Software is developed or engineered; it is not manufactured in the classical sense.
b. Software doesn’t “ wear out ”.
c. Software can be custom built or custom build.
d. All mentioned above
2. SDLC stands for
a. Software Development Life Cycle
b. System Development Life Cycle
c. Software Design Life Cycle
d. System Design Life Cycle
3. Find out which phase is not available in SDLC?
a. Coding
b. Testing
c. Maintenance
d. Abstraction
4. Design phase is followed by ______.
a. Coding
b. Testing
c. Maintenance
d. None of the above
5. What is the main aim of Software engineering?
a. Reliable software
b. Cost effective software
c. Reliable and cost effective software
d. None of the above
6. RAD software process model stands for
a. Rapid Application development
b. Relative Application development
c. Rapid Application design
d. Recent Application development
7. How many phases are there in requirement analysis?
a. Three
b. Four
c. Five
d. Six
8. Who writes the Software Requirement Specification Document (SRS)?
a. System developer
b. System tester
c. System analyst
d. None of the above
9. Which document is created by system analyst after the requirements are collected from various stakeholders?
a. Software requirement specification
b. Software requirement validation
c. Feasibility study
d. Requirement Gathering
10. What is a Functional Requirement?
a. Specifies the tasks the program must complete
b. Specifies the tasks the program should not complete
c. Specifies the tasks the program must not work
d. All of the mentioned
11. Which of the following is not defined in a good Software Requirement Specification (SRS) document?
a. Functional Requirement.
b. Nonfunctional Requirement.
c. Goals of implementation.
d. Algorithm for software implementation.
12. Which is nota desirable characteristic of SRS document?
a. Concise
b. Ambiguous
c. Traceable
d. Verifiable
13. What is the simplest model of software development paradigm?
a. Spiral model
b. Big Bang model
c. V-model
d. Waterfall model
14. Waterfall model is not suitable for:
a. Small projects
b. Complex projects
c. Accommodating changes
d. Maintenance Projects
15. If requirements are easily understandable and defined then which model is best suited?
a. Spiral model
b. Waterfall model
c. Prototyping model
d. None of the above
16. Which one of the following models is not suitable for accommodating any change?
a. Build & Fix Model
b. Prototyping Model
c. RAD Model
d. Waterfall Model
17. The prototyping software model is
a. A reasonable approach when requirements are well defined
b. Useful only when customer can not define requirement clearly
c. Best for large development team
d. Best for large development team
18. Where is the prototyping model of software development well suited?
a. When requirements are well defined.
b. For projects with large development teams.
c. When a customer cannot define requirements clearly.
d. None of the above.
19. Which of the following models doesn’t necessitate defining requirements at the earliest in the lifecycle?
a. RAD & Waterfall
b. Prototyping & Waterfall
c. Spiral & Prototyping
d. Spiral & RAD
20. Which model is also called as the classic life cycle or the Waterfall model?
a. Iterative Development
b. Linear Sequential Development
c. RAD Model.
d. Incremental Development
21. Project risk factor is considered in which model?
a. Spiral model.
b. Waterfall model.
c. Prototyping model
d. None of the above.
22. The Spiral model was originally proposed by
a. IBM
b. Pressman
c. Barry Boehm
d. Royce
23. Which is the most important feature of spiral model?
a. Quality management
b. Risk management
c. Performance management
d. Efficiency management
24. The spiral model has ___________ dimension.
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 1
25. Identify the two dimensions of the spiral model.
a. Radial, angular
b. Diagonal, angular
c. Diagonal, perpendicular
d. none
26. Which model has high reliability requirements?
a. Spiral model
b. RAD model
c. Waterfall model
d. None of the above
27. Which life cycle model can be chosen if the development team has less experience on similar projects?
a. Spiral
b. Waterfall
c. RAID
d. Iterative enhancement model
28. Which one is not an Evolutionary Process Model?
a. Incremental model
b. Spiral model
c. WINWIN spiral model
d. Waterfall model
29. Which model is also known as verification and validation model?
a. Waterfall model
b. Spiral model
c. COCOMO model
d. None of the above
30. Which two models will not be able to give the desired outcome if user’s participation is not involved?
a. Waterfall and spiral
b. RAD and spiral
c. RAD and waterfall
d. RAD and prototyping
31. Software project management comprises of a number of activities, which contains _________.
a. Project planning
b. Scope management
c. Project estimation
d. All mentioned above
32. Effective software project management focuses on the four P’s. What are those four P’s?
a. People, performance, payment, product
b. People, product, process, project
c. People, product, performance, project
d. All of the above.
33. Software project manager is engaged with software management activities. He is responsible for ______.
a. Project planning.
b. Monitoring the progress
c. Communication among stakeholders
d. All mentioned above
34. Requirement engineering process includes which of these steps?
a. Feasibility study
b. Requirement Gathering
c. Software Requirement specification & Validation
d. All mentioned above
35. In the Empirical Estimation Technique which model is developed by Barry W. Boehm?
a. Putnam model
b. COCOMO
c. Both A & B
d. None of the above
36. COCOMO stands for ______ .
a. COnsumed COst Model
b. COnstructive COst Model
c. COmmon COntrol Model
d. COmposition COst Model
37. Line of code (LOC) of the product comes under which type of measures?
a. Indirect measures
b. Direct measures
c. Coding
d. None of the above.
38. Who proposed Function Points?
a. Albrecht
b. Jacobson
c. Boehm
d. Booch
39. Which one of the following is not a software process quality?
a. Productivity
b. Portability
c. Timeliness
d. Visibility
40. Choose an internal software quality.
a. Scalability
b. Usability
c. Reusability
d. reliability
41. What is the most common measure of correctness?
a. Defects per KLOC
b. Errors per KLOC
c. $ per KLOC
d. Pages of documentation per KLOC
42. Which is the estimation software size should be known?
a. Time estimation
b. Effort estimation
c. Cost estimation
d. Software size estimation
43. SFD stands for
a. System Flow Diagram
b. System Function Diagram
c. System Flow Diagraph
d. System Feasible Diagram
44. QFD stands for
a. Quality Function Deployment
b. Quality Function Development
c. Quality Function Diagram
d. Quality Function Design
45. The degree of interaction between two modules is known as
a. Cohesion
b. Strength
c. Inheritance
d. Coupling
46. Which coupling is known as ‘global coupling’ ?
a. Content coupling
b. Stamp coupling
c. Data coupling
d. Common coupling
47. The worst type of coupling is
a. Data coupling
b. Control coupling
c. Stamp coupling
d. Content coupling
48. The desired level of coupling is ________
a. No coupling
b. Control coupling
c. Common coupling
d. Data coupling
49. The worst form of module cohesion is___________.
a. Coincidental Cohesion
b. Functional Cohesion
c. Temporal Cohesion
d. Logical Cohesion
50. Which among the following measures how strongly the elements within a module are related ?
a. Coupling
b. Cohesion
c. Aggregation
d. Inheritance
51. When multiple modules have read and write access to some global data, it is called, ________.
a. Content coupling
b. Content coupling
c. Data coupling
d. Common coupling
52. What do you call when two modules are coupled, when they communicate via a composite data item?
a. Content coupling
b. Common coupling
c. Control coupling
d. Stamp coupling
53. Coupling and cohesion can be represented using a
a. Dependence matrix
b. SRS
c. Cause-effect graph
d. Structure chart
54.When elements of module are grouped together that are executed sequentially in order to perform a task, is called ___.
a. Procedural cohesion
b. Logical cohesion
c. Emporal cohesion
d. Co-incidental cohesion
55. When elements of module are grouped because the output of one element serves as input to another and so on, it is called ________.
a. Functional cohesion
b. Sequential cohesion
c. Communicational cohesion
d. Procedural cohesion
56. Grouping of all functionally related elements is known as ______.
a. Cohesion
b. Coupling
c. Both A & B
d. None of the above
57. What do you call, when the elements of a module, all operate on the same data?
a. Functional cohesion
b. Temporal cohesion
c. Procedural cohesion
d. Communicational cohesion
58. A design is said to be a good design if the components are
a. Strongly coupled
b. Weakly cohesive
c. Strongly coupled and weakly cohesive
d. Strongly cohesive and weakly coupled
59. Which is not a diagram studied in Requirement Analysis?
a. Use case
b. E-R diagram
c. State transition diagram
d. Activity diagram
60. Which tool is used for structured designing?
a. Program flowchart
b. Structure chart
c. Data flow diagram
d. Gantt chart
61. In size oriented metrics, metrics are developed based on the number of
a. Functions
b. User inputs
c. Lines of codes
d. None of the above
62. What encapsulates both data and functions?
a. Object
b. Class
c. Superclass
d. Subclass
63. The relationship between a derived class (or subclass) and base class is referred to as
a. Association
b. Inheritance
c. Polymorphism
d. Instantiation
64. Which is not a project management goal?
a. Avoiding customer complaints
b. Maintaining well functioning developing team
c. Delivering the software to the customer at the agreed time
d. Keeping overall cost within budget
65. A 66.6% risk is considered as
a. Very low
b. Low
c. High
d. Moderate
66. Quality planning is the process of developing a quality plan for
a. Team
b. Project
c. Customer
d. Project manager
67. What describes the data and control to be processed?
a. Planning process
b. Software scope
c. External hardware
d. Project complexity
68. What establishes the profile of end users of the system?
a. Design model
b. User’s model
c. Mental image
d. System image
69. Activities and action taken on the data are represented by circle or a round-edged rectangle is called _____.
a. Entities
b. Process
c. Data storage
d. Data flow
70. An entity in ER Model is a real world being, which has some properties called_____.
a. Attributes
b. Relationship
c. Domain
d. None of the above
71. How many layers are present in the object oriented design pyramid?
a. 3
b. 4
c. 5
d. 1
72. OOD languages provide a mechanism where methods performing similar tasks but vary in arguments and that can be assigned to the same name is called _____.
a. Classes
b. Object
c. Polymorphism
d. Encapsulation
73. In OOD, the attributes (data variables) and methods( operation on the data) are bundled together is called _______ .
a. Classes
b. Objects
c. Encapsulation
d. Inheritance
74. Which of the following is not desired in determining function point?
a. User input
b. User inquiries
c. External interfaces
d. Errors
75. How is reliability and failure intensity related to each other?
a. Direct relation
b. Inverse relation
c. No relation
d. Can’t determine
76. What is MTTF?
a. Maximum time to failure
b. Mean time to failure
c. Minimum time to failure
d. None of the above
77. How is software reliability defined?
a. Time
b. Efficiency
c. Quality
d. Speed
78. Testing can be applied to:
a. Requirement
b. Analysis
c. Design
d. Code
79. Identify the incorrect testing technique.
a. Integration testing
b. Collaboration testing
c. System testing
d. Unit testing
80. One of the fault base testing is :
a. Unit testing
b. Beta testing
c. Stress testing
d. Mutation testing
81. Code is checked in which type of testing?
a. White box testing
b. Black box testing
c. Green box testing
d. Red box testing
82. Which testing is performed by the user?
a. Acceptance testing
b. Unit testing
c. Compatibility testing
d. None of these
83. Alpha and beta testing are forms of
a. Acceptance testing
b. Unit testing
c. System testing
d. Integration
84. White box testing can be started :
a. After SRS creation
b. After designing
c. After programming
d. After installation
85. Black box testing is also called
a. Specification-based testing
b. Structural testing
c. Verification
d. Unit testing
86. What is cyclomatic complexity?
a. Black box testing
b. White box testing
c. Yellow box testing
d. Green box testing
87. In which of the following categories can white-box testing be classified?
a. Design based testing
b. Structural testing
c. Error guessing technique
d. None of the above
88. Alpha testing is done at
a. Developer’s end
b. User’s end
c. Developer’s and user’s end
d. None of the above
89. Statement and branch coverage metrics are part of :
a. Analysis model
b. Testing
c. Design model
d. Source code
90. Testing of data with actual data and in actual environment is called :
a. Alpha testing
b. Beta testing
c. Regression testing
d. None of the above
91. Which of the following is the form of Alpha and Beta testing?
a. System testing
b. Unit testing
c. Acceptance testing
d. Integration testing
92. Software Maintenance includes
a. Error corrections
b. Enhancements of capabilities
c. Deletion of obsolete capabilities
d. All of the mentioned
93. Maintenance is classified into how many categories?
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
94. Which of the following is not a type of maintenance?
a. Adaptive Maintenance
b. Preventive Maintenance
c. Perfective Maintenance
d. Performative Maintenance
95. The modification of the software to match changes in the ever changing environment, falls under which category of software maintenance?
a. Corrective
b. Adaptive
c. Perfective
d. Preventive
96. What type of software testing is generally used in Software Maintenance?
a. Regression Testing
b. System Testing
c. Black-box testing
d. White-box testing
97. Which testing is the re-execution of some subsets of tests that have already been conducted to ensure the changes that are not propagated?
a. Unit testing
b. Regression testing
c. Integration testing
d. Thread based testing
98. Which includes modifications and updations done in order to correct or fix the problems that are either discovered by user or concluded by user error reports?
a. Perfective maintenance
b. Adaptive maintenance
c. Corrective maintenance
d. Preventive maintenance
99. Changes are made to the system to reduce the future system failure chances is called _________.
a. Preventive Maintenance
b. Adaptive Maintenance
c. Corrective Maintenance
d. Perfective Maintenance
100. Which of the following is true about Corrective Maintenance?
a. It includes modifications and updations done in order to correct or fix problems, which are either discovered by user or concluded by user error reports.
b. It includes modifications and updations applied to keep the software product up-to date and tuned to the ever changing world of technology and business environment.
c. It includes modifications and updates done in order to keep the software usable over long period of time.
d. It includes modifications and updations to prevent future problems of the software.
101. Modifying the software to match changes in the ever changing environment comes under which maintenance?
a. Adaptive
b. Corrective
c. Perfective
d. Preventive
102. Which software testing is generally used in Software Maintenance?
a. Regression Testing
b. Unit testing
c. System testing
d. Integration testing
103. What is used for implementing the changes in existing or new requirements of user in software maintenance?
a. Preventive maintenance
b. Perfective maintenance
c. Corrective
d. Adaptive
104. In software maintenance tackling the changes in the hardware and software environment where the software works, is called ______.
a. Corrective
b. Perfective
c. Adaptive
d. Preventive
105. Which of the following are parameters involved in computing the total cost of a software development project?
a. Hardware and software cost
b. Effort cost
c. Travel and training cost
d. All of the above